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Code d'Examen: C2020-605
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Controller Developer)
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

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NO.1 Why is the offset account for certain investment elimination control tables the same?
A. So that investment and intercompany eliminations are able to perform the same calculations
B. So that automatic journals make a zero sum in the offset account in the consolidated group
C. So that currency conversion is easily performed and reconciled in the consolidated group
D. So that when the administrator copies opening balances to another period, the administrator can
reconcile and differences
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following tools could be used to load data into the Controller staging tables?
A. IBM Controller Import Specification wizard
B. IBM Cognos Data Manager
C. IBM Cognos Configuration
D. IBM Cognos Controller Excel Link
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator wants to create movement accounts to track changes between the opening and
closing balances of account 1200 (Machinery and Equipment). What must the administrator attach to
account 1200 in order to generate these movement accounts?
A. Base extensions
B. Group journals
C. Movement extensions
D. Movement journals
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application's rules.?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Verify Companies menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation structures log file
Answer: A

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NO.5 The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions
will a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form
C. Enter data into group journals
D. Create company journals
Answer: C

IBM   C2020-605   C2020-605

NO.6 End users report data on a weekly basis. They want to be able to work with as many weeks as possible
in a single fiscal year. When configuring the application, what is the maximum number of weeks that an
administrator can specify for a year?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B

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NO.7 When importing external data files using import specification, which of the following are compulsory
fields in the upload file?
A. Period, Consolidation Type. Company, Submission, Account, Amount
B. Period, Actuality, Company, Currency, Account, Amount
C. Period, Actuality,Company,Consolidation Type, Account, Amount
D. Period,Submission, Company,Currency,Account, Amount
Answer: B

IBM   C2020-605 examen   C2020-605   C2020-605 examen

NO.8 In the diagrams below, a journal entry for Cash (account B100000, an asset account in the balance
sheet) and External Reserves (account R100_000, a cost account in the income statement) is recorded in
the amount of 100. The balance sheet in the Journals Across report does not balance anymore because
Total Assets (account B450000) has a value of 1200 and Total Liabilities and Equity (account B750000)
has a value of 1100. What caused the difference between the Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Equity
accounts?
A. The company journal type, US GAAP, should credit account B711000 for 100.
B. Balance Sheet for Net Income in the general configuration should be B711000.
C. In the general configuration, no value has been specified in the Other Difference for Automatic
Journals field
D. Net Income (Non-integrated) in the general configuration should be B711000.
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator is creating a standard data entry form for end users. On which tab must the
administrator specify the type of information that will be shown on the rows and columns of the form?
A. Axes tab
B. Reorder tab
C. Process Layouts tab
D. Lock tab
Answer: A

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NO.10 The administrator activated the Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation and the Use
Period Locking on Company Level. What is the effect?
A. Submissions and reconciliations are locked and company status is set to ready
B. Company status is set to ready and submissions and reconciliations are started
C. Company status is set to ready and submissions are locked if reconciliations cleared
D. Submission is allowed only once per company when status is set to ready
Answer: C

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NO.11 A multi-page Excel Link report contains several Controller functions on every worksheet. In order to
improve performance when running the report, how should the functions be organized in the report?
A. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the last Excel worksheet.
B. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the first Excel worksheet
C. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets, and hidden in system columns A. B, and C.
D. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets. and hidden in system rows 1 to 27.
Answer: B

IBM   C2020-605 examen   C2020-605

NO.12 An administrator created a company journal. The administrator then added several transactions to the
journal. The accounts in these transactions use currency conversion code I. By default, if there is no
amount for the previous year (no local amount or converted amount), what rate is used to convert the
local amount for the current year?
A. The previous year's closing rate
B. The previous year's opening rate
C. The previous year's average rate
D. The previous year's data is not used
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the difference between currency conversion codes I and C?
A. Code I uses no currency conversion for the opening balance; code C copies prior year's average rate.
B. Code C copies prior year's average rate for opening balance; code I calculates prior year's closing rate
C. Code I calculates opening balance rate, code C copies the opening balance amount.
D. Code C copies prior year's average rate; code I uses prior year's closing rate for opening balance.
Answer: C

IBM   certification C2020-605   C2020-605   C2020-605

NO.14 How can currency conversion be verified after running a consolidation?
A. Check the log report that appears after consolidation is run.
B. Execute the calculation report created for currency conversion.
C. Run the Currency Conversion report for the group company.
D. Run the journals across report for the group after consolidation.
Answer: C

IBM   C2020-605 examen   C2020-605 examen   C2020-605

NO.15 End users need to enter data related to intercompany transactions into the Controller system. What
must the administrator set up to enable users to enter this data?
A. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and transaction currencies
B. Counter company information and extended dimensions
C. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and include the accounts on a form
D. Counter company information and transaction currencies
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: P6040-025
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 743 and 784 Technical Mastery )
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the standard warranty service type offered for SurePOS x43 and x84
systems?
A. Depot Service
B. Carry in Service
C. IBM On-Site Repair
D. IBM EasyServ Repair
Answer: C

IBM examen   P6040-025   P6040-025

NO.2 On which model is an 80GB hard disk drive and a CD/DVD standard?
A. S83
B. C83
C. S43
D. C43
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the minimum clearance required around the system unit for proper airflow and
cooling?
A. one inch on all sides
B. six inches on all sides
C. two to three inches on all sides
D. four to five inches on all sides
Answer: C

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NO.4 Light-Path Management consists of which three components? (Choose three.)
A. LEDs
B. remote management
C. service processor
D. USB memory manager
E. uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
F. second hard drive containing diagnostics
Answer: A,B,C

IBM   P6040-025   P6040-025   P6040-025 examen

NO.5 A customer is considering upgrading to SurePOS 784 systems. They need two PCI
slots and they are
concerned about PCI compatibility, restrictions, and limitations. What information should a
technical
specialist provide this customer? (Choose two.)
A. Full-length PCI feature cards are not supported.
B. The 784 provides support for only two PCI Express slots.
C. PCI slots are only available as a standard feature on the SurePOS 743 models.
D. If a customer has two PCI adapters to migrate forward they will need to select the
additional riser
option that provides two PCI slots.
E. There is nothing to worry about, since all SurePOS x43 and x84 models have two PCI
slots that will
accommodate full-size and short PCI cards.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which component can be replaced without removing the pullout tray?
A. I/O module
B. memory module
C. processor fan
D. hard disk drive
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three types of ports are standard on all SurePOS x43 and x84 models? (Choose
three.)
A. two VGA ports
B. two PC USB ports
C. two RS-485 ports
D. one parallel port
E. two powered USB ports
F. audio mic-in/line out ports
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.8 Which three systems management capabilities are supported on the SurePOS x43 and
x84 models.?
(Choose three.)
A. Wake on LAN (WOL)
B. Wake on WiFi (WOW)
C. Wake on Touch (WOT)
D. Remote Deployment Manager (RDM)
E. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
Answer: A,D,E

IBM examen   certification P6040-025   P6040-025

NO.9 The IBM SurePOS x43 point-of-sale (POS) system uses the prefixes "S", "E", and "C"
to indicate
specific models. What do these prefixes stand for?
A. "S" refers to the superior model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C"
indicates a
customer model.
B. "S" indicates an administrative model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C"
indicates a
controller model.
C. "S" refers to the model geared to the supermarket segment; "E" refers to the entry level
model; "C"
indicates a customer model.
D. "S" refers to the model geared to the specialty segment; "E" refers to the entry level
model; "C"
indicates a controller model.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is true about the location of the two hard disk drives that the SurePOS
x43 and x84
accommodate?
A. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the back of the system unit to the left of the
power supply.
B. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the right front of the system unit directly
behind the drive
bay door.
C. The first hard disk drive is located at the front left of the system and the second drive is
located next to
it horizontally (front right).
D. The first hard disk drive is located at the front right of the system directly behind the drive
bay door and
the second drive is located at the back of the system unit.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2060-220
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, Administration)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?
A. ndm/lib/
B. ndm/bin/
C. ndm/cfg/cliapi/
D. ndm/cfg/cd_node/
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which utility can be used via command line to export and import users and netmap settings in Sterling
Connect:Direct for Windows?
A. Client Connection Utility
B. Logon Configuration Utility (LCU)
C. Connect:Direct Configuration Utility
D. Connect:Direct Command Line Interface (CLI)
Answer: C

IBM examen   C2060-220   C2060-220   C2060-220

NO.3 An administrator wants to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX but Connect:Direct needs to run all
executing processes to completion before shutting down. Which command should be submitted?
A. stop;
B. stop step;
C. stop force;
D. stop immediate;
Answer: A

IBM   C2060-220   C2060-220 examen   C2060-220

NO.4 A SNIFFER trace shows the following entries:
A NETSTAT display was performed. What is the correct connection state that a user should expect?
A. LAST ACK
B. FIN WAIT1
C. ESTABLISHED
D. The administrator would NOT expect to see a connection show up.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to get a list of processes that completed
successfully. The command begins with: select statistics ccode=(=,0) recids=... ; Which Record Id filters
will complete this command?
A. CTRC
B. PRED
C. PSED
D. PSTR
Answer: B

IBM   C2060-220   C2060-220   C2060-220   C2060-220

NO.6 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user is troubleshooting a problem for either changing,
deleting, selecting or terminating a process. Which diagnostic trace option should be used?
A. cmgr
B. pmgr
C. smgr
D. comm
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX in the directory /opt/connect and defined
the local node name as CDUNIX01. The administrator wants to start Connect:Direct for UNIX Command
Line Interface (CLI) client to submit a process. Which environment variable must the administrator set to
get access to this client?
A. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/direct
B. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/ndmcli
C. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/cliapi/ndmapi.cfg
D. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/CDUNIX01/initparm.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.8 One of the benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct is that it:
A. focuses on message switching.
B. utilizes proprietary data formatting.
C. provides 24 x 365 unattended operation.
D. offers manual restart through the use of email.
Answer: C

IBM   C2060-220   certification C2060-220   C2060-220 examen

NO.9 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to determine the outcome of process
numbers 10 to 15. What command can retrieve this information?
A. select statistics pnumber=(10-15);
B. select statistics pnumber=(10..15);
C. select statistics pnumber=10,11,12,13,14,15;
D. select statistics pnumber=(10,11,12,13,14,15);
Answer: D

IBM   C2060-220   certification C2060-220

NO.10 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows environment is installed to allow for high availability, by
assigning a virtual IP address to the cluster to which each node is then bound to. Which local node
parameter is used to specify this virtual IP address?
A. node.check
B. tcp.host.port
C. outgoing.address
D. Alternate Comminfo
Answer: C

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NO.11 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows node on a new server. The
administrator also defined new Functional Authorities for another user. When the user logs onto the
server and opens Connect:Direct Requester for the first time, the node is not displayed. The Nodes view
is empty. What should the user do in order to attach to the new node?
A. Add the new node to the netmap.
B. Contact the administrator and ask to verify access.
C. Logon to the server with the administrator's account.
D. Select Node>Connection Settings>Insert Node and enter the local node information.
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2060-220   C2060-220   C2060-220   C2060-220 examen

NO.12 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing
environment on a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area
where the multiple nodes can place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various
nodes are aware of activity. What parameter is used to specify this?
A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is supported by Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS V1 FMH flows?
A. XDR Keywords
B. Mapped DSECTS
C. ZLIB Compression
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Answer: B

IBM   certification C2060-220   C2060-220

NO.14 A Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS administrator navigated to the Secure+ Admin Tool: Main
Screen?shown here: Which Connect:Direct Secure+ remote node supports the STS encryption protocol?
A. SECURE.REMOTE01
B. SECURE.REMOTE02
C. SECURE.REMOTE03
D. SECURE.REMOTE04
Answer: B

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NO.15 When configuring a node in Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which field is found on the General
properties tab in the CD Admin Tool?
A. API IP Address
B. Local LU Name
C. Max PNode Sessions
D. Enable TCP/IP Support
Answer: C

IBM   C2060-220   C2060-220   C2060-220 examen   C2060-220

NO.16 Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?
A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: D

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NO.17 A user is building a process to send a compressed ZIP archive file to a remote node. What
compression setting is most efficient and provides the best performance for this type of file?
A. COMPRESS Extended
B. COMPRESS PRIMECHAR=X'20'
C. COMPRESS Extended=(CMPrlevel=9,WINdowsize=15,MEMlevel=9)
D. No compression.
Answer: D

IBM examen   C2060-220   C2060-220   C2060-220

NO.18 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows administrator needs to verify that the latest fixes have been
applied. Which option will show the release and maintenance level of the Windows node?
A. SPAdmin
B. Admin Tool
C. Message Lookup
D. Configuration Utility
Answer: B

IBM   C2060-220 examen   C2060-220

NO.19 A Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX administrator needs to submit a process directly into the Execution
queue in order to bypass the Wait queue. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. submit
B. submit hold=no
C. submit retain=no
D. submit maxdelay=0
Answer: D

IBM examen   C2060-220 examen   C2060-220 examen   C2060-220

NO.20 In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node
using Advanced Program to Program Communication (APPC)?
A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: P2090-018
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Information Management DB2 10 Technical Mastery Test v3)
Questions et réponses: 35 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following options is CORRECT about Temporal Tables?
A. Temporal tables are complex to maintain and require major application changes.
B. Temporal tables require constant changes to the operating system timestamp in order to
navigate
through time in the database.
C. Temporal tables are used to model data in the past and present. They cannot be used to
model data in
the future.
D. Temporal tables are used to model data in the past, present, and future.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a DB2 instance?
A. A DB2 instance is just another name for DB2 Database.
B. A DB2 instance is a copy of a database that can be accessed standalone from the
database server.
C. A DB2 instance is a logical database manager environment where you catalog databases
and set
configuration parameters.
D. DB2 does not use instances. It requires only databases to operate.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which one of the following options is TRUE about High Availability and Disaster
Recovery (HADR)
feature?
A. HADR allows up to two HADR standby databases.
B. HADR allows up to three HADR standby databases.
C. HADR allows up to four HADR standby databases.
D. HADR allows up to five HADR standby databases.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following options best defines the Label-Based Access Control (LBAC)
feature.?
A. DB2 LBAC allows you to use labels to reference database objects by a short name instead
of the full
qualified name.
B. DB2 LBAC lets you decide exactly who has write/read access to individual rows and
columns by
comparing the security labels between database objects and users.
C. DB2 LBAC monitors table data access and tables modifications made by database users.
D. DB2 LBAC is the DB2 authority in charge of issuing GRANT and REVOKE statements.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the following options is FALSE about DB2's Multi-Temperature Data
Storage capability?
A. You can use storage groups to implement multi-temperature data management in DB2.
B. Multi-temperature data management reduces the total cost of ownership by allowing
efficient
deployment of storage hardware with minimal administrative overhead.
C. Multi-temperature data management integrates with DB2's Workload Manager feature to
let you
prioritize your workloads based on the data being accessed.
D. Multi-temperature data management best practices recommend that cold data should be
stored in
faster devices in order to maximize overall system performance.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2020-701
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Analyst)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three reasons why you would use Cognos BI Reporting rather than TM1 Web? (Choose
three.)
A. You must merge data from different cube sources.
B. You require bursting of reports.
C. You require different report versions.
D. You require data entry capability.
E. You require highlight capability for reports.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 You have imported a sales data Cognos Insight local cube. You have years, quarters, and months in
different dimensions. However, for your business requirements, it would be better to have a one-time
dimension.
How would you change your model?
A. Change the cube structure using the Group Dimension function.
B. Create a new cube using the Group Dimension function.
C. Change the cube structure using the Combine Dimension function.
D. Create a new cube using the Combine Dimension function.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the Assumptions dimension all key figures are formatted correctly as shown in the exhibit, yet all values
are displayed as currency.
Where would you search for the currency format?
A. In the title dimensions
B. In the other row dimension
C. In the column dimensions
D. In the cube format
Answer: C

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NO.4 A TM1 Application Web user has completed data input. Which action allows the user to lock the data for
review?
A. Commit
B. Save
C. Release ownership
D. Submit
Answer: D

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NO.5 How do you configure a TM1 Web application so that users are not prompted for the TM1 Admin Host
every time they log in?
A. Modify the capability assignments in TM1 Architect.
B. Edit the pmpsvc_config.xml file.
C. Edit the web.config file.
D. Change security on the top-Level application folder from "private" to "public".
Answer: C

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NO.6 Why would you use Rebuild over Recalc in an Active Form?
A. When a conditional format on a report changes
B. When metadata is added to the TM1 model that must be displayed on the row
C. When data changes along the rows of a report
D. When a leaf element is added to a consolidated element of a report
Answer: B

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NO.7 What must a TM1 Application Web user do to perform what-if analysis on budget amounts, without
affecting the current version of the data?
A. Export to Cognos Insight.
B. Create a Sandbox.
C. Slice to Excel.
D. Create a scenario.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A company uses Excel workbooks to access IBM Cognos TM1 data over a wide area network. The
company needs to improve the performance of their Excel workbooks which contain multiple slices from
multiple TM1 cubes.
Which two changes will improve performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Convert all DBR() functions to DBRW() functions.
B. Make all DBRW() functions reference a single VIEW function.
C. Convert all DBRA() functions to DBRW() functions.
D. Convert all DBRW() functions to DBR() functions.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 You want to create TM1 Excel reports.
What are two methods to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Build from Excel directly
B. Use the Slice to Excel button
C. ExportCognos Insight report to Excel
D. Use the TM1 Excel wizard
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 You have entered new planning data into a TM1 Model and all figures are blue. Which statement is
correct?
A. The numbers are in the base cube and need to be submitted before seen by others.
B. The numbers are in the base cube and need to be committed before seen by others.
C. The numbers are in a Personal Workspace and need to be committed before seen by others.
D. The numbers are in a Personal Workspace and need to be saved before seen by others.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: A2150-575
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assess: IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.9 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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NO.10 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

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NO.14 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

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NO.16 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.18 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: M2050-246
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Smarter Commerce Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 What provides the capability to rapidly deliver new web concepts or delineated brand
sites via asset
sharing on a common platform?
A. Personalization
B. Social integration
C. Partnership with affiliates
D. Extended sites
Answer: B

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NO.2 In order to effectively implement ___________ you must be able to aggregate line items
from individual
orders to send to suppliers and then separate them out again for customer fulfillment.
A. store operations
B. cross-channel order management
C. social marketing
D. supply chain visibility
Answer: D

IBM   certification M2050-246   M2050-246   M2050-246

NO.3 Smarter Commerce is focused on which of the following 3 dimensions with respect to
the customer?
A. Customer potential, customer transaction capture, customer fulfillment.
B. Customer insight, customer value strategy, customer & partner engagement.
C. Customer demographics, customer geography, customer affluence.
D. Customer returns, customer purchases, customer order changes.
Answer: B

certification IBM   M2050-246 examen   M2050-246 examen   M2050-246   M2050-246

NO.4 Which of the following Smarter Commerce Offerings is a core part of delivering a
customer
buy-online, pick-up in store (BOPIS) capability?
A. Social Analytics.
B. Distributed Order Management.
C. Logistics Management.
D. Customer Self Service.
Answer: B

certification IBM   M2050-246 examen   M2050-246 examen   M2050-246 examen   certification M2050-246

NO.5 What can AdTarget do?
A. Monitor all advertisements watched on cable television
B. Working withaffiliates, target Internet ads without email
C. Utilize You Tubeto more effectively deliver adcontent
D. Force customers to watch the entireInternetadbefore entering websites
Answer: B

IBM examen   M2050-246   M2050-246   M2050-246   M2050-246

NO.6 You can create a powerful self-service experience for the customer using?
A. The IBM Customer Experience Suite
B. The IBM Commerce Framework
C. The IBM Enterprise Service Process Manager
D. The IBM Customer Service System
Answer: A

IBM examen   M2050-246 examen   M2050-246   certification M2050-246

NO.7 What are Smarter Commerce Buy
Offerings focused on?
A. Visibility and optimization in the supply chain.
B. Customer buying patterns.
C. Effective 1:1 marketing to facilitate customer purchase decisions.
D. Buy online, pick-up in the store (BOPIS).
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification M2050-246   M2050-246

NO.8 The web marketing continuous optimization platform can drive which of the following
capabilities?
A. Optimize paid search advertising.
B. Automate customer recommendations based on LIVE profile.
C. Target through online advertisements based on interaction history.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

certification IBM   M2050-246 examen   certification M2050-246   M2050-246

NO.9 Segmentation, offer management, interaction history, real-time behavioral targeting,
and contact
optimization are examples of capabilities delivered as part of what?
A. Data mining.
B. Social platform.
C. Central decisioning.
D. Customer clustering.
Answer: C

certification IBM   M2050-246   M2050-246

NO.10 Smarter Commerce capabilities are packaged and delivered as what?
A. A single, high-value, shrink-wrapped, solution for commerce.
B. Middleware components requiring additional business function software.
C. Software, hardware, and services to deliver specific business processcapabilities which
support each
phase of the commerce cycle.
D. A simple monolithic application for each phase of the commerce cycle.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: P2170-015
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM IOC Intelligent Water Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 38 Q&As

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NO.1 How many points of variability are called on in the WIH (Water Information Hub)
programming model?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 6
D. 1
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification P2170-015   certification P2170-015

NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a way in which the Work Optimization component
provides value.?
A. Optimizing work crew schedules
B. Detecting water usage patterns
C. Using crews more efficiently
D. Decreasing transport costs
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the kinds of external systems that WIH (Water Information Hub) can ingest
data from?
A. SCADA systems only
B. Meter systems only
C. SCADA systems, Meter systems, EAM systems
D. None of the above
Answer: C

IBM   P2170-015   P2170-015

NO.4 What asset is NOT used to support IW v1?
A. Water Information Hub
B. Leak Management Hub
C. Non Revenue Water
D. Meter Usage Anomaly
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification P2170-015   P2170-015 examen

NO.5 How is the "Seasonal Usage" ratio calculated?
A. Summer Usage / Winter Usage
B. Winter Usage / Summer Usage
C. Summer Usage / Overall Usage
D. Winter Usage / Overall Usage
Answer: B

IBM   P2170-015   P2170-015 examen   P2170-015

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Dernières IBM M2170-652 examen pratique questions et réponses

Code d'Examen: M2170-652
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Curam Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

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NO.1 Understanding how the tiers of government operate is critical to successful opportunity
identification
and prospecting since that understanding allows you to:
A.Align the payment schedules to the government schedules
B.Know which is the middle tier so as not to incorrectly promote them to the top and bottom
C.Know where to send the invoice whenCuramsolutions are sold
D.AlignCuramsolutions directly to the business of the jurisdiction
Answer: D

IBM   certification M2170-652   M2170-652 examen

NO.2 What is a case?
A.It is used to manage interactions between the participant and the agency
B.A case is a category of intake questions
C.It is a key part ofCuram
D.A and C
Answer: C

certification IBM   M2170-652   M2170-652 examen

NO.3 Curam is a fully integrated product suite.What types of social programs does Curam
support?
A.Social Security
B.Free milk program
C.The space program
D.None of the above
Answer: A

IBM   M2170-652   M2170-652

NO.4 Curam is an important component of IBM s Smarter Cities strategy by providing the
solutions for which
segment of the Smarter Cities framework:
A.Infrastructure
B.Planning and Management
C.Human
D.All of the above
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification M2170-652   M2170-652 examen

NO.5 The Social Program Management Platform Value Proposition includes:
A.Enables a rapid, lower-risk implementation by leveraging pre-built and configurable social
services
elements and business processes
B.Empowers the business to define and deploy new programs through configuration tools in
a runtime
environment
C.Protects current investment and provides flexibility to address new and emerging service
delivery
trends
D.All of the above
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: P2090-027
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Warehouse Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 What does the ABC designation include for inventory items?
A. Quantity reserved in stock
B. Quantity expired for a particular Lot
C. Count Frequency in number of days
D. Activity Based Costing in capital dollars
Answer: C

IBM examen   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.2 A work order has been created to perform corrective maintenance on a defective generator. All
required information has been provided in the work order, but required materials are not in stock and
have to be ordered. What is the status of the work order, after a maintenance manager has approved the
work order?
A. Approved (APPR)
B. Waiting on Materials (WMATL)
C. Waiting to be Scheduled (WSCH)
D. Waiting on Plant Condition (WPCOND)
Answer: B

IBM   P2090-027   certification P2090-027   P2090-027 examen

NO.3 What should be done if a company decides to stop doing business with a vendor?
A. Notify buyers using Workflow.
B. Delete the Company Master record.
C. Set the Company record status to DISQUAL.
D. Check the Disqualified Vendor check box on the Company record.
Answer: D

IBM   P2090-027   certification P2090-027   certification P2090-027   certification P2090-027

NO.4 Through which action are Currency Codes created?
A. select New Row in Currency Codes application
B. select Action Currency Codes in the Database Configuration application
C. select an Organization in the Currency Codes application and add a new row
D. select the Base Currency lookup in the Organizations application and add a new row
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification P2090-027   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027   certification P2090-027

NO.5 Other than through the Purchase Orders application, how can Purchase Orders be created in IBM
Maximo Asset Management V6.2?
A. from an approved Lease, Rental, Master, or Purchase contract
B. from a Purchase Requisitions Create PO action, create the approved Purchase Order
C. from a Purchase Requisition, a Request for Quotation, a Master Contract, or a reorder process
D. from a Purchase Requisition, a Request for Quotation, a Purchase Contract, or a reorder process
Answer: D

IBM examen   P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027

NO.6 Can an item balance ever be allowed to be negative?
A. never
B. always
C. depends on which item
D. depends on if it is allowed in the Inventory Default settings
Answer: D

IBM examen   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027 examen   certification P2090-027   certification P2090-027

NO.7 The IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 administrator creates a new Start Center with updated Key
Performance Indicators. Which application must be used to associate the Start Center to users?
A. Users
B. People
C. Organizations
D. Security Groups
Answer: D

IBM   certification P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.8 What is the maximum value (as a percentage of total cost) that an item identified as condition-coded
can have?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: D

IBM   certification P2090-027   certification P2090-027   P2090-027 examen

NO.9 At which level do Commodity Codes exist within IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2?
A. Set level
B. Site level
C. System level
D. Organization level
Answer: A

IBM examen   P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027   certification P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.10 What is the use of work assets on safety plans?
A. The work asset determines to which assets and locations a safety plan can be applied.
B. Only safety plans with associated work assets can be used in combination with job plans.
C. The safety plan can only be applied to work orders with the same asset or location associated.
D. The work assets combined with the work on a job plan dictate which safety information is required.
Answer: D

IBM examen   P2090-027   P2090-027   certification P2090-027

NO.11 Which status will prevent an invoice from being cancelled?
A. Hold
B. Entered
C. Approved
D. Waiting for Approval
Answer: C

IBM   P2090-027   certification P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.12 Which two applications can be used to view actual costs for labor, materials, services, and tools?
(Choose two.)
A. Labor Reporting
B. Quick Reporting
C. Work Order Tracking
D. Assignment Manager
E. Work Order Management
Answer: BC

IBM examen   certification P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.13 Based on which two conditions can master Preventive Maintenance (PM) schedules be created?
(Choose two.)
A. elapsed time since the target start date or completion date of previous work generated by PM
B. difference between completion date of previous work and system date is equal to Lead Time
C. elapsed time since the target start date or completion date of the latest work orders for the asset
D. metered equipment usage since the target start date or completion date of previous work generated by
PM
E. metered equipment usage since the target start date or completion date of the latest work order for the
asset
Answer: AD

certification IBM   P2090-027   P2090-027 examen

NO.14 What should be done to add lines from a Purchase Request (PR) to a Requests for Quotation (RFQ)?
A. Hyperlink to the PR tab and add each line.
B. Go to the Vendors tab in the RFQ application and click Create PO.
C. Go to the Quotation tab in the RFQ application and select RFQ lines.
D. Select Action in the RFQ application and click Copy PR line item to RFQ.
Answer: D

IBM   P2090-027   certification P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.15 What is used to execute a task at a particular time against any application on a user-defined schedule
with user-defined parameters?
A. Sets
B. Workflow
C. Cron Task
D. Notification
Answer: C

IBM   P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.16 Which statement is true about items that have been assembled into a kit?
A. Only rotating items can be part of a kit.
B. Kits can be assembled from lotted items.
C. Kits can be assembled from items in different storerooms.
D. Items that have been assembled into kits do not appear in item balances.
Answer: D

IBM   P2090-027   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027

NO.17 In a routing type workflow process, on which nodes does IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 use the
information specified to deliver the record to individuals?
A. Condition and Task
B. Manual Input and Task
C. Interaction and Manual Input
D. Manual Input and Subprocess
Answer: B

IBM   P2090-027   certification P2090-027

NO.18 How can Service Items be reordered?
A. The IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM) administrator can use the Reorder Items action in
the Inventory application to reorder all the Service Items required.
B. The IMAM administrator can create a purchase order (PO) for all the Service Items required and use
the Issue on Receipt check box for PO Lines related to Service Items.
C. The IMAM administrator can use the Reorder Direct Issue Items and Services action in the Service
Item application to reorder all items or services and are issued without being received into
inventory.
D. The IMAM administrator can use the Reorder Direct Issue Items and Services action in the Service
Item application to reorder items or services that are listed on approved work orders and
are issued without being received into inventory.
Answer: D

IBM   P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027 examen   certification P2090-027

NO.19 The Client has requested that once Terms and Conditions (Ts Cs) are attached to another record, the
Ts Cs should be unchangeable. How is this appropriately accomplished?
A. In the Contracts application, delete the Ts Cs from the record and enter a new row.
B. In the application using the specific Ts Cs, rename the Ts Cs and approve the record.
C. In the Terms and Conditions Application, uncheck the Editable box on the newly created term.
D. In the Terms and Conditions Application, change the status of the newly created term to Approved.
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification P2090-027   P2090-027 examen   certification P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.20 What must be assigned to establish an asset as Rotating?
A. Spare parts
B. Rotating Item
C. Classification
D. Operating Location
Answer: B

IBM examen   P2090-027   certification P2090-027

NO.21 Which statement is true about item records and inventory management?
A. With IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM), item records are created in the Item Master
application, and storeroom records are created in the Storerooms application, but inventory is
managed in the Inventory application.
B. With IMAM, item records are created in the Storerooms application, and storeroom records are created
in the Inventory application, but inventory is managed in the Inventory application.
C. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Item Master application, and inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
D. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Storerooms application, but inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
Answer: A

IBM   certification P2090-027   P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.22 Which two applications can be used by a user to report emergency work, if the user at least wants to
report downtime, classify the request, and report actuals? (Choose two.)
A. Job Plan
B. Quick Reporting
C. Labor Reporting
D. Work Order Tracking
E. Assignment Manager
Answer: BD

IBM   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.23 In order to use the item records at the site level, to what must the item be added?
A. Asset
B. Location
C. Storeroom
D. Rotating Asset
Answer: C

IBM   P2090-027   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.24 Where are the receipt of Services and Materials processed in IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2
(IMAM)?
A. The Receipt of Services and Materials are processed in the Receiving application.
B. Services are rendered and Materials are received in the Purchase Order application.
C. Receipts of Services and Materials are systematically processed in IMAM transitionally.
D. Services are rendered and Materials are received using the Issues and Transfer application.
Answer: A

IBM   P2090-027 examen   certification P2090-027

NO.25 In IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2, what does the Purchase Orders applications Distribute
Costs action do?
A. Distribute the line item cost among all lines.
B. Distribute the line item cost among all direct issue lines.
C. Distribute the line item cost among multiple GL accounts.
D. Distribute the purchase order cost among multiple GL accounts.
Answer: C

IBM   P2090-027   P2090-027   certification P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.26 Which menu option must be used to grant a user the authority to add or remove users to one or more
Security Groups?
A. Security Controls
B. Database Access
C. Set Security Profile
D. Authorize Group Reassignment
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification P2090-027   P2090-027

NO.27 Company XYZ receives an invoice from one of its vendors. How is this processed in IBM Maximo
Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM)?
A. When an invoice is received by the company, the user will access the Invoices application, enter the
receipt information, approve, and then route to Accounts Payable.
B. All invoices are routed by IMAM to the Accounts Payable department for matching against existing
purchase requisitions (PR). Once the PR is confirmed with the proper approvals, the
Accounts Payable department will process payment.
C. When an invoice is received by company XYZ, the user will access the Invoices application, enter the
Vendors Invoice information by creating a new record, match the Vendor Invoice to the
Purchase Order (PO), approve, and then route to Accounts Payable.
D. When an invoice is received by the company XYZ, the user will go to the PO application, access the
PO Line tab, and insure that the receipt box has a Y. If the Y is showed, the invoice will be
closed, but if the Y is missing, the invoice will be routed back to the vendor for verification.
Answer: C

IBM examen   P2090-027   P2090-027 examen

NO.28 With which level in IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 are Purchase Contracts associated?
A. Set Level
B. System Level
C. Database Level
D. Organization Level
Answer: D

IBM   P2090-027   P2090-027 examen

NO.29 What must be done in order to automatically close the purchase requisition (PR) after one or more
purchase orders (PO) have been created?
A. All PR lines must be assigned to a PO.
B. The PR must be in the Approved status.
C. The PR must enter the workflow process.
D. All manual company input fields must be completed.
Answer: A

IBM   P2090-027   certification P2090-027   certification P2090-027   P2090-027 examen

NO.30 What must be created before populating the Tools application?
A. Item Sets
B. Item Master Owner
C. Vendors for the Items
D. Storeroom assignment
Answer: A

IBM   P2090-027   P2090-027 examen   P2090-027

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